Larousse -- "perfect for your language demands" and "furnishing quick and functional solutions to the various complications encountered when examining Portuguese" (however its pronunciation tutorial lacks basic information, contained in the opposite also),
Could this syntactic rule be The main reason why brazilian are inclined never to fall matter pronoun "eu" and "nos" whether or not verbal inflections are very clear?
- is there a method to figure out which can be which dependant on the overall spelling, phrase variety and familiarity with stress place?
- is there a way to determine which is which depending on the general spelling, phrase variety and knowledge of pressure locale?
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To me, your dictionaries are sufficient. Vowels are a complex problem. There's no these point as a perfect match when we mention vowels; This is why dictionaries -- for pedagogical causes -- commonly adopt expressions like "much like" of their phonetic explanations. One example is, we could use exactly the same IPA symbol for both apito and noisy; however it doesn't suggest that Those people sounds are exactly equivalent.
Now, the confusion originates from The truth that I usually do not hear this diphthongized o inside the aforementioned and many other phrases at forvo.com.
When your dictionaries say everything about diphthongs, they're just Incorrect. All those Appears are monothongs. It can be real that you've 3 various ways to pronoune the letter o, but none of these is really a diphthong, which is always represented in crafting.
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Now, the confusion comes from The reality that I don't listen to this diphthongized o in the aforementioned and all kinds of other terms at forvo.com.
Ariel Knightly stated: To me, your dictionaries are ok. Vowels are a posh issue. There is no these thing as an ideal match once we look at vowels; This is why dictionaries -- for pedagogical factors -- typically undertake expressions like "just like" inside their phonetic explanations.
How occur all three of these are so deceptive? Is there almost every other Portuguese or almost every other Brazil the authors experienced in mind or did they never ever understand the language to begin with?
The Oxford dictionary claims to generally be "most reliable" and "complete reference work" (still I've uncovered typos and problems other than this in it),
Eu sei acidentes de viação (portuguese - portugal) que vou te amar. (''eu sei que eu vou te amar'' sounds normal too, ''sei que vou te amar'' could possibly be felt as too bare / newscastish to lots of people: in headlines they alway dismiss pronouns, content articles etc, This is why it may audio as ''newscastese'').
Are classified as the dictionaries wrong or outdated? Or do they protect another dialect of Brazilian Portuguese than that demonstrated at forvo? Or am I deaf?
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